I would NOT USE a text thus cites Hitler. He was a sick person and i don't think any of his ideas may be used eve for irones.<div><br></div><div>Gaya<br><br><div class="gmail_quote">2012/5/30 William Slomanson <span dir="ltr"><<a href="mailto:bills@tjsl.edu" target="_blank">bills@tjsl.edu</a>></span><br>
<blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1px #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex">Assume that an Int'l Law textbook cites Hitler's Mein Kampf (possibly on two occasions) as chapter-opening two-sentence vignettes/food for thought/incredible ironies. Each passage contains language that sounds like the French Revolution or American Constitution---written when he was in jail in 1924. After he came to power, he then totally disregarded his pre-Furer human rights musings. One underlying purpose would be to futher expose Hitler's hypocrisy and, as they say, to illustrate how absolute power corrupts absolutely.<br>
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Question #1: Would you NOT do so, if this were your textbook? Would you NOT use a text that thus cites Hitler? Would it NOT make a difference?<br>
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Question #2: Would the mere citation of Mein Kampf in that textbook bar it from being used in certain countries?<br>
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Thoughts?<br>
Bill<br>
</blockquote></div><br><br clear="all"><div><br></div>-- <br>Gayane Davidyan<br><br>Associate Professor<br>School of Law<br>Moscow State University<br>Moscow, Russia<br>
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