[IntLawProfessors] CITING HITLER?

[William Slomanson]

Assume that an Int'l Law textbook cites Hitler's Mein Kampf (possibly on two occasions) as chapter-opening two-sentence vignettes/food for thought/incredible ironies. Each passage contains language that sounds like the French Revolution or American Constitution---written when he was in jail in 1924. After he came to power, he then totally disregarded his pre-Furer human rights musings. One underlying purpose would be to futher expose Hitler's hypocrisy and, as they say, to illustrate how absolute power corrupts absolutely.

Question #1: Would you NOT do so, if this were your textbook? Would you NOT use a text that thus cites Hitler? Would it NOT make a difference?

Question #2: Would the mere citation of Mein Kampf in that textbook bar it from being used in certain countries?

Thoughts?
Bill