[IntLawProfessors] CITING HITLER?
karpe philippe
philippe.karpe at cirad.fr
Wed May 30 06:40:36 EST 2012
Absolutely bizarre......
Philippe
-----Message d'origine-----
De : intlawprofessors-bounces at mailman.anu.edu.au
[mailto:intlawprofessors-bounces at mailman.anu.edu.au] De la part de William
Slomanson
Envoyé : mardi 29 mai 2012 21:23
À : TILDS at yahoogroups.com; intlawprofessors at mailman.anu.edu.au;
administrator at pilpg.org
Objet : [IntLawProfessors] CITING HITLER?
Assume that an Int'l Law textbook cites Hitler's Mein Kampf (possibly on two
occasions) as chapter-opening two-sentence vignettes/food for
thought/incredible ironies. Each passage contains language that sounds like
the French Revolution or American Constitution---written when he was in jail
in 1924. After he came to power, he then totally disregarded his pre-Furer
human rights musings. One underlying purpose would be to futher expose
Hitler's hypocrisy and, as they say, to illustrate how absolute power
corrupts absolutely.
Question #1: Would you NOT do so, if this were your textbook? Would you NOT
use a text that thus cites Hitler? Would it NOT make a difference?
Question #2: Would the mere citation of Mein Kampf in that textbook bar it
from being used in certain countries?
Thoughts?
Bill
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