[IntLawProfessors] CITING HITLER?

[William Slomanson]

Yes...I agree completely. 
________________________________________
From: karpe philippe [philippe.karpe at cirad.fr]
Sent: Tuesday, May 29, 2012 1:40 PM
To: William Slomanson; TILDS at yahoogroups.com; intlawprofessors at mailman.anu.edu.au; administrator at pilpg.org
Subject: RE: [IntLawProfessors] CITING HITLER?

Absolutely bizarre......

Philippe

-----Message d'origine-----
De : intlawprofessors-bounces at mailman.anu.edu.au
[mailto:intlawprofessors-bounces at mailman.anu.edu.au] De la part de William
Slomanson
Envoyé : mardi 29 mai 2012 21:23
À : TILDS at yahoogroups.com; intlawprofessors at mailman.anu.edu.au;
administrator at pilpg.org
Objet : [IntLawProfessors] CITING HITLER?

Assume that an Int'l Law textbook cites Hitler's Mein Kampf (possibly on two
occasions) as chapter-opening two-sentence vignettes/food for
thought/incredible ironies. Each passage contains language that sounds like
the French Revolution or American Constitution---written when he was in jail
in 1924. After he came to power, he then totally disregarded his pre-Furer
human rights musings. One underlying purpose would be to futher expose
Hitler's hypocrisy and, as they say, to illustrate how absolute power
corrupts absolutely.

Question #1: Would you NOT do so, if this were your textbook? Would you NOT
use a text that thus cites Hitler? Would it NOT make a difference?

Question #2: Would the mere citation of Mein Kampf in that textbook bar it
from being used in certain countries?

Thoughts?
Bill

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